TARGET GPAT
Name : Sub : Pharmacology
ID : Topic : General Pharmacology, Anti Anginal
drugs
Test : 1 Date :
1. The study of identification and comparative
evaluation of a new drug with existing
drug is known as
a.
Pharmacogenomics b. Pharmcometrics
c.
Pharmacoeconomics d. Pharmacoepidemiology
2. Pharmacoepidemiology is emerging branch of
pharmacy. Pick the correct options
P.
It is an important topic for regulatory authorities for issuing licence
Q.
It deals with identification and comparative evaluation of drugs
R.
It deals with study of drug effects over a group of population
S.
Licensing authorities do not require details of pharmacoepidemology
a. P, Q b. P,R c. R,S d.
Q,R
3. Therapeutic index is determined in which
phase of clinical trials
a.
Phase-I b. Phase-III
c.
Phase-II d. Phase-IV
4. Pick the wrong option regarding
idiosyncratic reaction.
a. They are not predictable and
uncommon
b. Do not depend on the dose
c. It may be due to immunological and
genetic cause
d. Withdrawl of drug is not required
5. Therapeutic index is a ratio of toxic dose
to effective dose. Pick correct options
P. Larger the TI, safer the drug
Q. Smaller the TI, toxic the drug
R. Larger the TI, toxic the drug
S. Smaller the TI, safer the drug
a. P,Q b. Q,R c. R,S d.
S, P
6. Type –A adverse drug reactions are
characterized by which of the following.
a. Idiosyncratic reaction b.
A function of patient’s susceptibility
c. Caused by drug-drug
interactions d. All the above
7. Withdrawl symptoms are elicited by
a. Clonidine b. Benzodiazepines
c. Tricyclic anti depressants d. All the above
8. Parkinsonism is produced by phenothiazines
and antipsychotic drugs. It is known as
a. Iatrogenic b. Idopatic
c. Teratogenic d. Carcinogenic
9. Teratogenic effect of phenytoin is
a. Hypoplastic phalanges b. Cleft lip
c. Both a & b d. None of the above
10. Hydrochlorthiazides and triamterene produce
which type of antagonism
a.
Competitive antagonism
b.
Non-competitive antagonism
c.
Physiological antagonism
d.
None of the above
11. Sublingual route of administration has the
following properties except
a.
Rapid onset of action
b.
Devoid of first pass metabolism
c.
Reduce toxic and adverse reactions
d.
High molecular weight compounds can be given
12. The term isobaro is an important factor for
a.
Intrathecal injections b. Intravenous injections
c.
Subcutaneous injections d. All the above
13. To diagnose “Heart block”, angiography is
performed, the route selected for injecting radiolabelled dye is
a. I.V b.
S.C
c.
Intra-arterial d. Intra-articular
14. Phlebitis is an important disadvantage of
which route of administration
a. SC b. Oral
c.
IM d. IV
15. Allosteric antagonism is a mechanism of
action of which of the following drug
a. Adrenaline b. Diazepam
c.
Atenolol d. None of the above
16. Na+ / K+ ATPase pump is
an example of which transport.
a. Symport b. Antiport
c. Both a and b d. None of the
above
17. Creatinine clearance is measured by
a.
Renal excretion rate b. Drug metabolism rate
c.
Active renal secretion d. Glomerular filtration rate
18. The intensity of the pharmacological action
of a drug mostly depends on
a. Concentration of drug at the receptor site
b. Minimum toxic concentration of the drug
c. Minimum effective concentration of the drug
d. Elimination half life of the drug
19. Earliest evidence that a drug is stored in
tissue is
a. Increase in plasma protein binding
b. Large apparent volume of distribution
c. Decrease in the amount of drug excreted by
urine
d. Decrease in the number of side effects
produced by drug
20. Olsalazine is
a. Inactive drug biotransformed to an
active drug
b. Active drug biotransformed to
inactive drug
c. Invivo enzymatic transformation into
non toxic metabolite
d. Invivo enzymatic transformation into
drug with reduced side effects
21. The receptor, which produces faster action is
a. Ligand-gated ion channel
b. G-protein coupled receptor
c. Kinase-linked receptor
d. Nuclear receptor
22. Name the drug, which inhibits
phosphodiesterases
a. Caffeine b.
Sildenafil
c. Indomethacine d. All the above
23. Name the enzyme, which converts PIP2 to IP3
and DG
a.
Phospholipase-C b. Phospholipase-A
c.
Phosphodiesterase d. Carbonic anhydrase
24. Among the following, which one is a
secondary messenger
a. c-AMP b. IP3
c. DAG d. All the above
25. Nicotinic receptor is an example of
a. Ligand-gated ion channel
b. G-protein coupled receptor
c. Kinase-linked receptor
d. Nuclear receptor
26. An agent used in prinzmetal angina and has
spasmolytic activity is
a.
Nitroglycerine
b.
Nifedipine
c.
Timolol
d.
Iso-sorbide mononitrate
27. The type of tolerance shown by nitrates is
a.
Tissue tolerance
b. Cross tolerance
c.
Both a and b
d.
None of the above
28. By which of the following, nitroglycerine’s
tolerance can be overcome?
a.
Using high dose of drug
b.
Discontinuing of drugs for 2-3 weeks
c.
Avoiding the drug at night time
d.
Using drug in the form of SR tablet and transdermal preparation
29. Prof. Naidu came to a hospital by
complaining pain in the chest and
radiating to the
left hand. Then the doctor advised for
stress studies. Prof. complained more pain in
the chest during stress studies and
pain relieved by taking rest.
i. What
type of angina the prof. suffers from
a. Prinzmetal angina b.
Unstable angina
c. Stable angina d. Pre infraction angina
ii. What
adjuvant is given during studies?
a. Adenosine infusion b. Normal saline infusion
c. Dextrose infusion d.
None of the above
iii. Name
the drug to be prescribed among the following
a. Nitroglycerine b.
Nifedipine
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
30. Which of the following agents used in
prinzmetal angina has spasmolytic actions,
which increases coronary blood supply?
a. Nitroglycerine b. Diltiazem
c.
Timolol d.
Propranolol
31. Patient with angina pectoris receiving
propranolol plus diltiazem must be monitored
for which adverse drug effect
a.
Decrease cardiac output b. Decrease heart rate
c.
Increase heart rate d. Both a and b
32. In which of the following poisoning, nitrites are used
a. Arsenic poisoning b. Cyanide poisoning
c.
Organophosphorous poisoning d. Heavy metal poisoning
33. Which of the following adverse effect is
likely to be experienced by nitroglycerine
a.
Throbbing headache b. Sexual dysfunction
c.
Anemia d. Bradycardia
34. Among the following dosage forms of
nitroglycerine which one would be useful in
preventing prinzmetal angina?
a. Sublingual b. Transdermal
c.
Both a and b d. None of the above
35. Among the following drugs which one is used
alternative to the nitrates?
a. Nicorandil b. Nifedipine
c. Isradipine d. None of the above
TARGET GPAT
Name : Sub : Pharmacology
ID : Topic : Chemotherapy
Test : 2 Date :
1. Metronidazole inhibits anaerobic bacteria
and protozoa by
a.
Affecting the structure of DNA molecule of the origin
b.
Destroying the ribosomes
c.
Inhibiting the cytochrome system
d.
Inhibiting the protein synthesis
2. Given below are antibacterial agent and
mode of action (a-e).Match them correctly
i.
Gentamycin a.
Inhibits the mycolic acid synthesis
ii.
Isoniazid b.
Prevents the bacterial cell wall synthesis
iii. Polymyxin B
c.
Binds with 30s ribosomal subunit (take
false amino acid)
iv.
Penicillin d.
Gets accumulated at cell wall membrane and
counteract with cell phospholipids
e.
Destroys the nucleic acid
A.
i- c B. i-a C. i-c D. i-a
ii-a ii-b ii-d ii-c
iii-d iii-c iii-c iii-e
iv-b iv-d iv-b iv-d
3. Sulfamethoxazole is an antibacterial drug.
It is a
a.
Short acting drug
b.
Short and intermediate acting drug
c.
Long acting drug
d.
Mixed acting drug
4. The undesirable effects of the
antibiotics are listed below. Match them
1. Tetracycline a. Gray-baby syndrome
2. Streptomycin b. Discoloration of teeth
3. Chloramphenicol c. Jaundice
4. Rifampicin d. Obesity
e. Ototoxicity
A. i-b B. i-a C. i-e D
i-a
ii-e ii-b ii-d ii-c
iii-a iii-c iii-a iii-b
iv-c iv-d iv-c iv-d
5. Vinblastin and vincristin act by
a.
Interfering with the synthesis of t-RNA
b.
Inhibiting the fragmentation of DNA
c. Binding to protein
d. Incorporating into folic acid
metabolism
6. The causative organism of a disease is
given and the drug used for the treatment is
indicated below. Match them.
1.
E.histolytica a. Clofazimine
2.
P.falciparum b. Chloramphenicol
3.
M. leprae c.
Emetine
4.
S.typhi d.
Pyremethamine
5. Trichunella spiralis e.
Mebendazole
A. 1-a
B. 1-c
C. 1-e D. 1-a
2-b 2- d 2-d 2-c
3-
c 3-b 3-c 3-b
4-d 4-a 4-b 4-e
5-e 5-e 5-a 5-d
7. Match the following antibiotics to their
mechanism of action correctly.
i.
Ampicillin a.
Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis
ii.
Chloramphenicol b.
Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
iii.
Nystatin c. Inhibiting growth by
competitive antagonism
iv. Rifampicin d.
Inhibiting protein synthesis
e.
Inhibiting cell membrane
A.
i-a B. i-b
C.
i-b D. i- a
ii-b
ii-d ii- d ii- b
iii-d iii-e iii-a iii-c
iv-e iv-a iv-e iv-d
8. The antibiotic mentioned below is obtained
from the organism listed below.
Match them.
i.
Neomycin a. Streptomyces fradiae
ii. Gentamycin b. Micromonospora purpurea
iii. Bacitracin c. Streptomyces tenebrarius
iv. Tobramycin d. Bacillus subtilis
e.
B.polymyxa
A. i-a
B.
i-a C. i-a
D. i-b
ii-b ii-c ii-b ii-a
iii-c iii-b iii-d iii-c
iv-d iv-d iv-c iv-d
9. The active metabolite of anti-cancer
cyclophosphoramide is
a. N-Hydroxy cyclophosphoramide
b.
N-methyl cyclophosphoramide
c.
4-hydroxy cyclophosphoramide
d.
N-Acetyl cyclophosphoramide
10. Identify one of the cancer chemotherapeutic
agents which is an antimetabolite
a.
Gentamicin b. Ampicillin
c.
Tetracycline
d. Carbenicillin
11. For the drugs listed 1-4 mechanism of action
is indicated from a-e.
Match them.
i.
Vincristine
a. Macro cyclic antibiotic, which inhibits DNA
dependent RNA polymerase
ii.
Streptomycin
b. An antibiotic containing nitro
group which
binds to 50S ribosomal subunit.
iii.
Chloramphenicol
c. A dimeric indole alkaloid
which binds avidly to tubulin,
a class of protein that forms the
mitotic spindle
iv. Rifampicin d. An amino glycoside antibiotic, capable of
binding to 30S ribosomal
subunit
e. A quinoline alkaloid, which
inhibits
the growth of plasmodium vivax
A. i- d B. i-c C. i-d D. i-c
ii-c ii-d ii-c ii-d
iii-b iii-b iii-a iii-b
iv-a
iv-a iv-b iv-a
12. One of the following drugs interferes with
cellular metabolism, especially the
synthesis of mycolic acid. Identify
a.
Chloramphenicol b.
Pyrazinamide
c.
Isonicotinic acid hydrazide d.
Nicotinamide
13. Benzathine penicillin is
a.
An equimolecular composition of amoxicillin + N, N dibenzyl ethylene
diamine
b.
A molecular complexation of benzyl penicillin+ N, N dibenzyl ethylene
diamine
c.
A molecular complexation of cloxacillin + ethylene diamine
d.
Equimolecular proportion of amoxycillin + ethylene diamine
14. Smallpox vaccine contains
a.
Living virus vaccinia b. Living culture of B.C.G
c.
Attenuated Stephylococcus d. Living virus of hepatitis
15. One of the following drug is alkylating
agent, identify
a.
Cyclophosphoramide b. Methotrexate
c.
Allopurinol d. Rifampicin
16. The mechanism of action of antiviral drugs
is given .Match with closely associated
drug given below
1.
Inhibit an early step in viral
replication viral uncoated a.
Amantadine
2.
Irreversible inactivation of DNA polymerase b. Methisone
c. Rifampicin
d. Acyclovir
A. 1-a B. 1-b C. 1-b D. 1-d
2-d 2-d 2-c 2-a
17. The most common causative agent of bacterial
pneumonia is
a.
Staphylococcus aureus
b. E.coli
c.
S.pneumoniae
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
18. One of the organisms mentioned below is used
as a biological indicator in I.P for
ethylene oxide sterilization.choose the
correct one
a.
Staphylococcus aureus b.
Spores of Bacillus subtillis
c.
Bacillus pumilus
d. Spores of Bacillus cereus
19. Which one of the following is an antifungal
polyene macrolide antibiotic with
several
conjugated double bonds, an internal ester, a free carboxyl group and a
glycoside
chain with primary amino group?
a.
Streptomycin b. Echinocandins
c.
Rifamycin
d. Amphotericin-B
20. One of the following antiviral agents
exhibit the greatest selective toxicity for the
invading virus
a.
Amantadine b. Zidovudine
c.
Idoxuridine
d. Propranolol
21. Plasmodial resistance of chloroquine is due
to
a.
Induction of inactivating enzyme
b.
Change in receptor structure
c.
Increase in the activity of DNA repair mechanism
d.
Decreased carrier mediated drug transport
22. The mechanism of action for dactinomycin is
a.
Inhibits topoisomerase II
b.
Cross link DNA
c.
Inhibits the function of microtubules
d.
Inhibits DNA polymerase.
23. Varicella zoster is the causative organism
for
a.
Smallpox b. Dermatophytosis
c.
Herpes c. Infectious mononucleosis
24. The drug regimen useful in the treatment of
both intestinal and extra-intestinal
symptoms of amoebiasis given orally is
a.
Diloxamide and lodoquinol b. Paramomycin and mefloquine
c.
Metronidazole and diloxanide d.
Chloroquine alone
25. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of
mebendazole and thiabendazole involves
a.
Stimulation of acetylcholine receptor at neuromuscular junction
b.
Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
c.
Interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly
d.
Block thiamine transport
TARGET GPAT
Name : Sub : Pharmacology
ID : Topic : Chemotherapy
Test : 3 Date
:
1. Which of the following is
a gonadotropin releasing hormone?
a.
Formestane b. Tamoxifen
c.
Goserelin d. Flutamide
2. Fosfestrol is indicated
for
a. Breast cancer b. Prostatic cancer
c. Leukemia d. Lymphoma
3. Which of the following is
useful for premenopausal breast cancer?
a.
Tamoxifen b. Flutamide
c.
Megestrol d. Goserelin
4. Which of the following
drug has cardio protective activity?
a.
Flutamide b. Tamoxifen
c.
Lomustine d. Vincristine
5. The adrenal hormone
synthesis inhibitor is
a.
Trilostane b. Flutamide
c.
Formestane d. Fosfestrol
6. Which of the following is
a monoclonal antibiotic?
a. Mitotane b.
Rituximab
c. Crisantaspase d. Amscarine
7. A. Which of the following is a DNA polymerase inhibitor?
a.
Doxorubicin b. Flutamide
c.
Methotrexate d. Actinomycin
B. It is a
a. Anthracycline antibiotic b. Pyrimidine analogue
c. Hormone d. Purine analogue
8. Match the following.
DRUG CLASS
a. Zidovudine i. Adamantine derivative
b.
Ritonavir ii. NNRTI
c.
Nevirapine iii. NRTI
d.
Amantadine iv.
Protease inhibitor
A.
a-1 B. a-2 C. a-3 D. a-2
b-2 b-4 b-4 b-3
c-3 c-3 c-2 c-4
d-4 d-1 d-1 d-1
9. Steven-johnson syndrome
is caused by
a. Zidovudine b.
Sulphamathoxazole
c. Efavirenz d. Didanosine
10. Match the following.
Drug Analogue
a.
Didanosine i. Deoxyadenosine
b. Stavudine ii. Cytosine
c. Abacavir iii. Thymidine
d. Zalcitabine iv. Guanosine
A. a-2 B. a-2 C. a-4 D. a-1
b-1 b-3 b-1 b-3
c-3 c-4 c-3 c-4
d-4 d-1 d-2 d-2
11. Highly active anti
retroviral therapy regimen includes
P. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase
inhibitor and one non-nucleoside reverse
transcriptase inhibitor
Q. One nucleoside reverse transcriptase
inhibitor and two non-nucleoside reverse
transcriptase inhibitor
R. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase
inhibitor and two non-nucleoside reverse
transcriptase inhibitor
S. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase
inhibitor and one protease inhibitor
a. Q, S b.
R, S c. P, Q d. P, R
12. i. Which of the following is main unwanted
effects of Zidovudine?
a. Anorexia b.
Anaemia
c. Neutropenia d. Hypertension
ii. The above effects can be elevated by
a.
Erythromycin b. Epoetin
c.
Apotinin d. Molgramostin
13. Which of the following is
used to prevent mother-to-baby transmission of HIV
infection?
a. Efavirenz b. Zidovudine
c. Ritonavir d. Nevirapine
14. Which of the following
antiviral drug may cause insulin resistance?
a. Zidovudine b.
Efavirenz
c. Ritonavir d. Abacavir
15. Which of the following
antiviral drug may cause buffalo humps?
a. Stavudine b. Zalcitabine
c. Nevirapine d. Indinavir
16. In which of the following
clinical situations, prophylactic antibiotic is indicated?
a. Treatment of mother to protect the fetus in
case of an HIV-infected, pregnant women
b. To the individuals, who are in close contact with infected
patient
c. In patient with a history of heart disease
d. All the above
17. Which of the following
statement is wrong?
a. Clavulanic
acid alone is nearly devoid of antibacterial activity
b. Hydrolysis of the β-lactam ring, by
β-lactamase
c. β-lactamase inhibitors are formulated with
β-lactamase sensitive antibiotics
d. β-lactamase inhibitors are combined with
β-lactamase resistant antibiotics
18. Sulfonamides increase risk
of neonatal kernicterus because they
a. Diminish the production of plasma albumin
b. Increase the turn over of red blood cells
c. Inhibit the metabolism of bilirubin
d. Complete for bilirubin binding site on plasma
albumin
19. Nephrotoxicity is the
important toxicity of sulphonamide due to acetylated product.
Pick the correct option.
P. It is devoid of antibacterial activity
Q. Possess potential toxic effects
R. Acetylation can be prevented by using urinary
acidifiers
S. Acetylated products are insoluble at alkaline
PH
a. P,Q b.
R, S c. Q, S d. P, S
20. Drug used against
penicillinase producing Staphylococcus aureus is
a. Piperacillin-tazobactum b. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
c. Naficillin d. All the above
21. Match the following.
1. Clofazimine P. It may be administered once per day for
the treatment of urinary tract infection
2. Itraconazole Q. It may cause pink to brown skin
pigmentation with in a few weeks of
initiation of therapy
3. Lometoxacin R. Co-administration with astemizole or
Terfenadine may lead to life –
threatening cardiac dysarrhythmias
4.
Neomycin S. Very toxic on parenteral administration
A. 1-Q B.
1-R C. 1-S D.
1-Q
2-R 2-Q 2-P 2-R
3-P 3-S 3-R 3-S
4-S 4-P 4-Q 4-P
22. All of the following drugs
are appropriate therapies for a lower urinary tract
infection owing to
Pseudomonas aeruginosa except
a. Norfloxacin
b. Septran
c. Ciprofloxacin d. Methenamine mandelate
23. Which of the following has
broad spectrum antimicrobial property among the
amino
glycosides?
a.
Neomycin b. Tobramycin
c. Kanamycin d. Amikacin
24. Which of the following
drugs should be reserved for hospital acquired gram
negative infections and
multi-drug resistance in tuberculosis
a. Neomycin b. Amikacin
c. Gentamicin d. Tyrothricin
25. Among the following amino
glycoside antibiotics,which is used for gut sterilization prior to surgical procedures?
a. Neomycin b. Paromomycin
c. Both a and b d. Amikacin
26. Linezolid is oxazolidinone
derivative. Pick the correct option.
a. It is active against methicillin resistant
S.aureus (MRSA)
b. It is used to treat vancomycin resistant
Enterococcus faecium (VREF)
c. The drug is MAO inhibitor
d. All the above
27. “Red man syndrome” is
associated with
a. Vancomycin b. Bacitracin
c. Dactomycin d. None of the above
28. A 25 year old male AIDS
patient has fever of 1200 F and complains of severe
headache during the past
week. Staining of his CSF with Indian ink reveals
Cryptococcus neoformans
.The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated with
a. Intravenous amphotericin B plus flucytosis
b. Oral ketoconazole
c. Intrathecal amphotericin B
d. IV administration of ketoconazole
29. A heart transplant person
is being maintained by immunosuppressant cyclosporine.
He develops a candida
infection and is treated with ketoconazole .Why is this poor
therapy?
a. Ketoconazole is not effective against candida
b. Ketoconazole reacts with cyclosporine to
inactivate it
c. Ketoconazole inhibits cytochrome P450
enzymes that inactives cyclosporine
d. Ketoconazole causes gynacomastia and decreases
libido in male
30. Which of the following
drug is recommended for the treatment of severe multidrug
resistant falciparum malaria?
a. Artemisinin b.
Chloroquine
c. Primaquine d. Quinine
31. Which one of the following
drugs is likely to cause fatigue, backpain and darkened
urine?
a. Pyrimethamine b. Artemisinin
c. Primaquine d. Chloroquine
32. Which of the following
drug is used to prevent organ graft and can cause
hyperlipidemia?
a.
Azathioprine b. Basiliximab
c.
Mycophenolate mofetil d. Sirolimus
33. Which of the following
drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated
T-lymphocytes?
a. Daclizumap b. Tacrolimus
c. Sirolimus d. Prednisone
34. A 23 years old female is
suffering from grandmal epilepsy is being controlled with phenytoin . She is a candidate for a
renal transplant. Which agent might exacerbate the seizures in this patient?
a. Mycophenolate mofetil b. Sirolimus
c. Cyclosporine d. Tacroliomus
TARGET GPAT
Name : Sub : Pharmacology
ID : Topic : ANS, Antipsychotics
Test : 4 Date
:
1. The parasympathetic neurotransmitter at
sweat gland is
a.
Adrenaline b. Noradrenaline
c.
Acetylcholine d. None of the above
2. The sympathetic neurotransmitter at sweat
gland is
a.
Noradrenalin b. Adrenaline
c.
Acetylcholine d. Nitric oxide
3. The sympathetic innervation is only
present at
a.
Salivary glands b. Blood vessels
c.
Sweat glands d. Erectile tissue
4. The sympathetic and Para
sympathetic system have similar action at
a.
Blood vessel b. Sweat gland
c.
Heart d. Salivary gland
5. The sympathetic system has which of the
following effects on heart
P.
Positive chronotropic effect Q. Cardiac inhibition
R.
Conduction block S. Positive inotropic effect
a.
Q, R b. P, S c. Q, P d. S, R
6. The receptor, present at autonomic ganglia
is
a.
Muscarinic Ach receptor b. Nicotinic Ach receptor
c.
α-adrenergic receptor d. β-adrenergic receptor
7. The parasympathetic system is also known
as
a.
Cranial-sacral out flow b. Thoraco-lumbar out flow
c.
Fight or flight responds d. Rest and digest response
a.
P, R b. Q, S c. Q, R d. P, S
8. Nicotinic Ach receptors are mainly located
at
P.
Heart Q. Neuromuscular junction
R.
Autonomic ganglia S. Eye
a.
R, S b. P, Q c. Q, R d. Q, S
9. i.
Which of the following is a nicotinic Ach receptor antagonist.
a. Lobeline b.
Tubocurarine
c.
Atropine d. Gallamine
ii. The drug is used as
a.
Muscle relaxant b. Anti-ulcer agent
c. Antispasmodic d. Anti-diabetic
10. i. Pirenzepine is a
a.
M1-agonist b. M1-antagonist
c.
M2-agonist d. M2-antagonist
ii.
It is indicated for
a.
Heart block b. Glaucoma
c.
Myasthenia gravis d. Peptic ulcer
11. The non-selective muscarinic Ach receptor
antagonist is
a. Atropine b.
Pirenzepine
c.
Gallamine d. Pancuronium
12. Which of the following can be used as
adjunct for anesthesia?
a. Ipratropium b.
Pirenzepine
c.
Atropine d. Tropicamide
13. Which of the following can be used for
motion sickness?
a. Atropine b.
Scopolamine
c.
Carbachol d. Tropicamide
14. The drug which is not indicated for glaucoma
is
a. Pilocarpine b. Acetazolamide
c.
Tropicamide d. Ecothiopate
15. i.
Which of the following is a ganglionic blocking drug?
a.
Trimethaphan b. Atracurium
c.
Lobeline d.
Suxamethonium
ii. It is used to
a.
Decrease blood pressure during surgery.
b.
Decrease bronchial and salivary secretions during anaesthesia.
c.
Produce muscle relaxation. d.
Treat peptic ulcer.
16. Which of the following is a depolarizing
neuromuscular blockers?
a. Tubocurarine b. Suxamethonium
c. Pancuronium d.
Atracurium
17. The drug which inhibits vesicular transport
of Ach is
a.
Hemicholinium b. Triethyl choline
c.
Botulinium toxin d. Vesamicol
18. Which of the following may produce muscle
paralysis?
a.
Atropine b. Suxamethonium
c.
Botulinium toxin d. Pancuronium
19. The drug which inhibits choline uptake is
a. Vesamicol b. Neostigmine
c. Bungarotoxin d. Hemecholenium
20. Which of the following is an irreversible Acetylcholinesterase
inhibitor?
a.
Neostigmine b.
Physostigmine
c.
Dyflos d. Pyridostigmine
21. The antidote used in organophosphate
poisoning is
a. Pralidoxime b. Procaine
c.
Pancuronium d. Naloxone
22.
The drug used for atropine poisoning is
a. Flumazenil b. Pralidoxime
c. Physostigmine d. Trimethaphan
23.
Which of the following is a short
acting anticholinesterase?
a.
Neostigmine b. Edrophonium
c.
Ecothiopate d. Pyridostigmine
24.
The drug indicated for myasthenia
gravis is
a. Atropine b. Pilocarpine
c. Neostigmine d. Suxamethonium
25.
Which of the following is a selective α1
blocker?
a.
Doxazocine b. Phenylephrine
c.
Dobutamine d. Atenolol
26.
The selective α2 blocker is
a.
Phenylephrine b. Salbutmol
c.
Yohimbine d. Atenolol
27.
The selective α1 agonist is
a.
Metoprolol b. Methoxamine
c.
Salbutamol d. Prazosin
28.
The selective β2 agonist is
a.
Phenylephrine b. Salbutamol
c.
Dobutamine d. Atenolol
29.
The selective α2 agonist is
a. Prazosin b.
Clonidine
c.
Metoprolol d. Terbutaline
30.
The selective β1 blocker is
a. Propranolol b. Oxprenolol
c. Metoprolol d. Salbutamol
31.
The non selective α- blocker is
a. Prazosin b. Yohimbine
c. Propranolol d. Phenoxy benzamine
32.
The non selective β-blockers is
a. Metoprolol b.
Atenolol
c.
Propranolol d. Acebutolol
33.
Which of the following is not indicated
for hypertension?
a. Isoprenaline b.
clonidine
c.
Atenolol d. Prazosin
34.
The drug indicated for pheochromocytoma
is
a.
Ergotamine b. Phenoxybenzamine
c.
Adrenaline d. Salbutamol
35.
The drug used for anaphylactic shock is
a.
Phenoxybenzamine b. Clonidine
c.
Metoprolol d. Adrenaline
36. Which one is involved in the metabolism of
buspirone?
a.
CYP-3A4 b. CYP-2A4
c. CYP-4A3 d. CYP-4A2
37. Which antiepileptic drug has the least
effect on the efficacy of oral contraceptives?
a. Phenytoin b.
Gabapentin
c. Lamotrazine d. Both b and c
38. Which of the following drugs could cause
hyponatremia?
a. Carbamazepine b.
Felbamate
c. Oxcarbazepine d. a, c, and d
39. Which of the following antiepileptic agent is
used in the treatment of cardic arrythmiasis?
a. Carbamazepine b.
Phenytoin
c. Ethosuximide d. Clonazepam
40. What
is the mechanism of action of diphenyl hydantoin?
a. Blocking of Na+ channel b. Opening of Na+ channel
c. Blocking of K+ channel d. Opening of K+
channel
TARGET GPAT
Name : Sub : Pharmacology
ID : Topic:
Antiparkinsons drugs, ANS, Chemotherapy
Test : 5 Date :
1. The amount of decrease
dopamine in nerve tracts is visualized by which method.
a. Positron absorption tomography b. Positron emission tomography
c. Positron absorption spectroscopy d. Radio immuno assay
2. Which one of the following
combinations of anti-parkinsonism drugs is an
appropriate
therapy?
a. Amantiadine, carbidopa, and entacapone b.
Levodopa, carbidopa,
entacapone
c. Pergolide, carbidopa, entacapone d. Ropinirole, selegiline, entacapone
3. Peripheral adverse effects
of levodopa, including nausea, hypotension and cardiac arrhythmiasis can be
diminished by including which of the following drugs in the therapy?
a.
Amantidine b. Bromocriptine
c.
Carbidopa d. Entacapone
4. Which of the following
anti-parkinson drugs may cause peripheral vasospasm?
a. Amantiadine b. Bromocryptine
c. Carbidopa d. Entacapone
5. Modest improvement in the
memory of patients with alzheimer disease may occur with drugs that increase
transmission at which of the following receptors?
a. Adrenergic b. Cholinergic
c. Dopaminergic d. GABAargic
6. Which of the following
drug is a catechol-o-methyl transferase (COMT)
inhibitor and has reports of fatal liver toxicity with it?
a. Tolcapone b.
Entacapone
c. Pergolide d. Selegiline
7. Levodopa is associated
with which of the following problems?
a. Gastrointestinal side effects. b. Involuntary movements.
c. Decline in efficacy after 3-5 years. d. All the above
8. Amantidine has which of
the following advantages over levodopa?
a. More rapid relief over symptoms. b. Higher success rate.
c. Better long term effect. d. None of the above.
9. Which drug is a non-ergot
dopamine agonist and has a side effect profile different from the rest of the
dopaminergic agents?
a. Pergolide b.
Levodopa/carbidopa
c. Ropinirole d. Selegiline
10. Promipexole is used as
adjuvant to carbidopa and levodopa therapy. Pick the correct option.
P. It prevents decarboxylation of levodopa. Q.
It is non-ergot dopamine agonist.
R. It decreases dose of levodopa. S. They
prevent orthostatic hypotension.
a. Q, R b. Q, S c.
P, R d.
P, S
11. Which of the following
ergot alkaloid derivative is used in the treatment of parkinsonism?
a. Promipexole b. Lysuride
c. Selegiline d. Amantidine
12. Amantadine is an antiviral
drug used in treatment of parkinsonism. Pick the wrong option.
a. Aamntadine is less efficient than levodopa.
b. Amantadine decreases reuptake of dopamine.
c. It does not cause psychosis.
d. If dopamine release is maximum amantadine has
no effect on parkinsonism.
13. Which of the following
cholinesterase inhibitors is used in the treatment of
alzheimer’s
disease?
a. Physostigmine b. Rivastigmine
c. Neostigmine d. None of the above
14. Pyridoxine should not be
used along with levodopa.
a.
Pyridoxine accelerates decarboxylase. b. It inhibits decarboxylase.
c. It accelerates dehydrogenase d. None of the above
15. Toxic effect of L-dopa can
be reversed by administration of
a. Folic acid b. Pyridoxine
c. Tocopherol d. Thiamine
16.
Which of the following is both α and β
blocker
a. Pindolol b.
Terbutaline
c.
Labitolol d. Prazosin
17.
The main unwanted effect of selective β1-agonist
is
a. Tremor b. Asthma
c. Hypertension d. Nausea
18.
Among the following which are cholinesterase
reactivators?
a. Pralidoxime b.
Diacetylmonoxime (DAM)
c. Obidoxime chloride d. All of he above
19.
Among the following drugs which are
tocolytics?
a.
Atosiban b. Ritodrine
c.
Nefidipine d. All the above
20.
What is the function of tocolytics?
a. Muscle relaxants b. Uterine relaxants
c.
Both a and b d. None of the above
21.
What is the storage site for
adrenaline?
a. Adrenal medulla b.
Autonomic ganglia
c. Brain d. All the above
22.
Which of the following hormone is
secreted by adrenal medulla?
a. Nor
adrenaline b. Adrenaline
c.
Phenyl amine d. Dopamine
23.
Which of the following amino acid is
responsible for synthesis of noradrenaline?
a.
Alanine b. Glycine
c.
Histidine d. Tyrosine
24.
Which of the following is the synthetic
catecholamine?
a. Dopamine b.
Noradrenaline
c.
DOPA d. Isoprenaline
25.
Which of the following is the non
catecholamine?
a. Adrenaline b. Ephedrine
c. Isoprenaline d. None of the above
26.
What is the action of adrenaline on
eye?
a. Mydriasis b. Miosis
c. Glaucoma d. None of the above
27.
Which of the following receptor is
mainly stimulated by terbutamine?
a.
α1 b. α2
c. β1 d. β2
28.
Which of the following effects can be
seen upon stimulation of M1-receptor
a.
Gastric ulceration
b.
Muscle contraction
c. Pupil dilation
d. Bradycardia
29.
Which of the following effects can be
seen upon stimulation of M2 receptor
a.
Gastric ulceration b. Muscle contraction
c.
Pupil dilation d. Bradycardia
30.
What type of neuro transmitter is
released at NMJ?
a. Acetylcholine b. nor-adrenaline
c.
Adrenaline d. Serotonin
31. Sulfonamides are structural
analogues of
a. Gama amino butyric acid
b. P-amino butyric acid
c. P-amino benzoic acid
d. Gama amino benzoic acid
32. Sulfonamides act by
a. Inhibition of dihydrofolate
reductase
b. Inhibition of synthesis of PABA
c. Inhibition of dihydropteorate
synthase
d.
None of the above
33. Which of the following is an unwanted effect
of sulfonamides?
a. Cyanosis b.
Vitamin-B deficiency
c.
Ketosis d. Anaphylactic shock
34. Which of the following is an unwanted effect
of sulfonamides due to altered excretion?
a. Deafness b.
Anemia
c.
Crystalluria d. Diarrhoea
35. Co-trimoxazole is a combination of
a. Sulfisoxazole and trimethoprim
b. Sulfanilamide and trimethoprim
c. Sulfanilamide and sulfisoxazole
d. Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
TARGET GPAT
Name : Sub : Pharmacology
ID : Topic : Blood, Drugs on Renal System
Test : 6 Date
:
1. The synthetic vitamin-k
is
a.
Phytonadione b. Menaquinone
c.
Menadione d. None of the above
2. Which of the following prostaglandins is natural anti-platelet
agent?
a. Prostacyclin b. Thromboxyin
c. Prostaglandin-E d. All the above
3. Venous thrombosis is also known as
a. Green thrombosis b. Red thrombosis
c. Blue thrombosis d. White thrombosis
4. Arterial thrombosis is also known as
a. Green thrombosis b. Red thrombosis
c. Blue thrombosis d. White thrombosis
5. What is the general cause of thrombosis?
a. During treatment with oral contraceptive. b.
Atherosclerosis
c. In atrial fibrillation. d. All the above
6. What is the principle bioassay of heparin on cattle?
P. Ability to prevent clotting. Q. Ability to decrease clotting.
R. Increase clotting time. S. Decrease clotting time.
a. P, Q b.
P, R c. Q, R d. P, S
7. What are the anti-thrombotic factors?
a. Prostaglandin I2 b. Nitric oxide
c. Tissue plasminogen d. All the above
8. What is the action of thrombomodulin?
a. Inactivation of V and VII factors. b. Inactivation of IV and II factors.
c. Inactivation of V factors. d. Inactivation of IX factors.
9. Compared to unfractionated heparin. Low molecular weight heparins
have.
a. Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa
relative to IIa (thrombin)
b. Longer duration of action.
c. Have a predictable anticonvulsant effect.
d. All the above.
10. A glycosaminoglycan is found in the granules of mast cells.
i. An anticoagulant glycosaminoglycan is
a. Warfarin b. Heparin
c.
Vitamin K d. Aspirin
ii. The anticoagulant selected above acts by
a. Lowering the affinity for free plasminogen.
b. Degrading fibrin and fibrinogen.
c. Binding to anti-thrombin III.
d. Antagonizing co-factor functions of vitamin-K
11. Sweet clover disease is related to
a. Coumarin b. Ergot
c. Digitalis d. Heparin
12. What is the mechanism of action of heparin?
a. It binds to angiotensin III b. It binds to angiotensin II
c. It binds to angiotensin I d. None of the above.
13. A business executive,
while playing tennis complained of chest pain and was brought to emergency
room. He has history of mild hypertension and elevated blood cholesterol. ECG
changes confirmed the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. The decision is made
to open his occluded artery by using thrombolytic agent and also use aspirin
later.
i. The thrombolytic agent used is
a. Heparin b. Warfarin
c. Anistreplase d. Vitamin-K
ii.
Mechanism of action of aspirin is
a. Inhibits vitamin-K absorption b.
Anti-thrombin activity
c. Inhibits mechanism of heparin d.
Inhibits platelet aggregation.
iii. Mechanism of action of anti-thrombic agent is
a. Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. b.
Activation of clotting factor.
c. Inhibits platelet function. d. Agonist of vitamin-K
14. What happens when warfarin is administered with phenyl butazone?
a. Displaces warfarin from protein binding and
increases bleeding.
b. Stimulates hepatic metabolism and inhibits
bleeding.
c. Displaces warfarin from protein binding and
decreases bleeding.
d. All the above.
15. Which of the following is used as heparin substitute to treat deep
vein thrombosis?
a. Danaparoid b. Biviluridin
c. Streptokinase d. Both a and c
16. A 60 year old man is
diagnosed with deep-vein thrombosis. The patient was treated with a bolus of heparin
and a heparin drip was started. One hour later, he was bleeding profusely from
the
intravenous site. The
heparin therapy was suspended, but the bleeding continued. Protamine was
administered
intravenously and the bleeding resolved. The protamine acts by
a. Degrade the heparin b. Inactivates anti-thrombin
c. Activates the coagulation cascade. d. Activates tissue-plasminogen activator.
e.
Ionically combines with heparin.
17. What is the appropriate
temperature to store blood?
a. 2-6°C b. 15-25°C
c. 0°C d. 8-25°C
18. Vitamin-B12 abnormalities can be determined by
a. Shilling test b. Mantoux test
c. Direct coombs test d. Indirect coombs test
19. Direct coombs test is used for identification of
a. Haemolytic anemia b. Parnecious anemia
c. Sickle cell anemia d. Megaloblastic anemia
20. Among the following, which is the crystalloid plasma expander used
in the
treatment of shock.
a. Haemaccel b. Normal saline
c.
Plasma d. Macrodex 70
21. Sclerosing agent used in the treatment of varicose veins is
a. Phenol b. Vitamin-C
c. Tranexamic acid d. None of the above
22. Which of the following
diuretic is used in a patient with acute or chronic renal
failure having
creatinine clearance is below 25ml /min?
a. Hydrochlorthiazide b. Butamide
c. Furosemide d. Ethacrynic acid
23. Which of the following
drug to be prescribed to a patient allergic to furosemide or
tolerant to furosemide?
a. Bumetamide b. Torsemide
c. Ethacrynic acid d. All the above
24. Which of the following
drugs should be prescribed to a patient allergic to
sulphonamides?
a. Furosemide b. Torsemide
b. Ethacrynic acid d. None of the above
25. What is the side effect of
loop diuretics?
a. Ototoxicity b. Orthostatic hypotension
c. Hypokalemia d. All the above
26. The route of
administration of Mannitol is
a. Intravenous b. Subcutaneous
c. Oral c. Intramuscular
27. The suitable diuretic to
be used in a cardiac edema patient
P. Mannitol Q. Furosemide
R. Spironolactone S. Chlorthiazide
a. R, Q b.
P,R c. Q,S d. P,S
28. Which of the following
diuretic is used in cerebral oedema?
a. Mannitol b. Furosemide
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
29. Advantage of glycerol over
mannitol as diuretic is
a. It is given orally
b. Devoid of rebound edema
c. It can be used in presence of dehydration and
cardiac failure
d. All the above
30. Furosemide is the
diuretic, which can be given in cardiac edema. Pick the correct option
P. It acts at thick ascending limb of loop of
henle
Q. It acts by stimulation of Na+-K+
2Cl- symport
R. It acts by inhibiting Na+-K+
2Cl‑ symport
S. It acts by inhibiting Na+-K+
2Cl‑ antiport
a. P, Q b.
R, P c. R, S d. Q, R
31. Match the following correctly.
Diuretic Mode
of action
1. Acetazolamide P. Affects osmosis
2.
Furosemide Q. Inhibits Na+-K+- 2Cl‑
symport
3. Triamterene R. Inhibits Na+-H+ exchange
4. Mannitol S. Inhibits the reabsorption of Na+
in
mineralocorticoid dependent
portion of renal tubule
a. 1-R b. 1-Q c. 1-P d. 1-S
2-Q 2-S 2-S 2-P
3-S 3-P
3-Q 3-R
4-P 4-R
4-R 4-Q
32. Match the following.
Class Diuretic
1. Osmotic diuretic P. Isosorbide
2.
Loop diuretic Q. Furosemide
3.
Potassium sparing Diuretic
R. Spironolactone
4. Oraganomercurial Diuretic S. Mersalyl
theophylline
a. 1-S b. 1-P c. 1-Q d. 1-P
2-R 2-Q 2-P 2-S
3-Q 3-R 3-S 3-Q
4-P 4-S 4-R 4-R
33. A group of college students is planning a
mountain climbing trip .Which of the
following drugs would be appropriate
for them to take prevent mountain sickness
a.
Beta-blockers b. Anti cholinergic
c.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor d. Loop
diuretic
34. Which of the following drug
can be prescribed for hepatic cirrhosis patient?
a. Hydrochlorthiazide b. Spironolactone
c. Chlorthiacidone d. None of the above
35. Which of the following
diuretic should not be prescribed for the patient suffering from gout?
a. Furosemide b. Hydrochlorthiazide
c. Spironolactone d. Triamterene
TARGET GPAT
Name : Sub : Pharmacology
ID : Topic :General Anaesthetics, Alcohols, Blood
Test : 7 `Date :
1. The ideal phase or plane
for performing surgery
a. Plane II of stage III b. Plane III of stage III
c. Stage III d. Stage IV
2. In which stage of
anaesthesia no surgical procedure is carried out?
a. Stage I b. Stage II
c. Stage III d. None of the above
3. Which of the following
opiod analgesics have longer duration of action?
a. Morphine b. Pethidine
c. Buprenorphine d. Codiene
4. What are the advantages
of preanaesthetic medications?
a. To reduce anxiety and apprehension.
b. To relieve pre and post-operative pain.
c. To suppress
respiratory secretions and to reduce reflex excitability.
d. All the above.
5. Which of the following
requires a muscle relaxant?
a. Diethyl ether b. Halothane
c. Benzodiazepines d. Nitrous oxide
6. Halogenated anaesthetics
may produce malignant hyperthermia in
a. Patients with poor renal function b. Patients allergic to the anaesthetic
c. Pregnant women d.
Patients with a genetic defect in
the muscle ryanodine receptor
7. Children with asthma
undergoing a surgical procedure are frequently anaesthetized with sevoflurane,
because it
a. Rapidly taken up b. Does not irritate the airway
c. Has low metabolic rate d. Does not undergoes metabolism.
8. Which one of the
following requires administration of a muscle relaxant?
a. Benzodiazepines b. Nitrous oxide
c. Diethyl ether d. Flurodiazepines
9. Which of the following is
a potent intravenous anaesthetic but a week analgesic?
a. Thiopental b.
Benzodiazepines
c. Ketamines d. Etomidate
10. Which of the following is
a potent analgesic but a week anaesthetic?
a. Methoxyflurane b. Succinylcholine
c. Diazepam d. Nitrous oxide
11. Malignant hyperthermia
caused by halothane is treated with
a. Pancuronium b.
d-Tubocurarine
c. Suxamethonium d. Dantroline
12. Neuroleptic analgesia is
produced by the combination of
P. Droperidol Q.
Diazepam
R. Fentanyl S. Ketamine
13. According to overton-meyer
theory the highly potent anaesthetic will have
P. Low lipid solubility Q. High lipid solubility
R. low minimum alveolar concentration S. High
minimum alveolar concentration.
a. Q, S b.
Q, R c. P, R d.
P, S
14. Anterograde amnesia is
caused by
a.
Phenobarbital b.
Diazepam
c.
Pentobarbital d.
Buspirone
15. Which of the following
benzodiazepine is used as I.V anaesthetic?
a. Midazolam b.
Alprazolam
c. Triazolam d. Flurazepam
16. Which of the following
causes psychomimetic effect during recovery from anaesthecia?
a. Thiopental b. Propofol
c. Ketamine d. Midazolam
17. Barbiturates and diazepam
are incompatible with ketamine. What type of incompatibility it is?
a. Physical incompatability b. Pharmacological incompatability
c. Chemical incompatability d. None of the above
18. The inhalation anaesthetic
showing fast induction will have
a. High blood-gas partition coefficient. b. Low blood-gas partition coefficient.
c. High oil-gas partition coefficient. d. Low oil-gas partition coefficient.
19. Match the following.
Drugs Duration
of action
P. Zolpidem 1. Long acting
Q. Nitrazepam 2. Short acting
R. Clonazepam 3.
Medium acting
S. Temazepam 4.
Ultra-short acting
a. P-1 b.
P-2 c.
P-4 d. P-2
Q-2 Q-4 Q-3 Q-4
R-3 R-3 R-1 R-1
S-4 S-1 S-2
S-3
20. Which of the following
anaesthetic should not be used in vitamin-B12 deficient anemic
patients?
a. Propofol b. Nitrous oxide
c. Ketamine d. Thiopental
21. Dissociative anaesthesia
is caused by
a. Thiopental b. Propofol
c. Ketamine d. Isoflurane
22. The brief duration of
action of an ultra-short acting barbiturates is the result of a
a. Slow rate of metabolism in liver.
b. Low lipid solubility, resulting in minimal
concentration in the brain.
c. High degree of binding to plasma proteins.
d. Slow rate of excretion by kidneys.
e. Rapid rate of distribution from the brain
owing to its high liposolubility.
23. Beverages are prepared by
which type of alcohol
a. Ethyl alcohol b. Propyl alcohol
c. Methyl alcohol d. None of the above
24. What are the toxic effects
of ethyl alcohol on the liver?
a. Reduced synthesis of albumin and transferrin.
b. Increased synthesis of VLDL
c. Glycogen depletion.
d. All the above.
25. Which type of effects are
appeared in case of over dose of alcohol in pregnant women?
a. Teratogenic effect. b.
Leukemia.
c. Carcinogenic effect. d. All
the above.
26. Alcohol addicted persons are liable to
suffer from what type of syndromes?
a.
Korsakoff’s psychosis b. Hallucination
c.
Suicidal tendencies d.
All the above
27. Sudden withdrawal of alcohol leads to which
type of withdrawal syndrome
a. Insomnia b. Tremor
c. Tremulousness d. All the above
28. Which type of anti-epileptic drug is used in
the moderate withdrawal syndrome?
a.
Citrated calcium cynamide b. Carbamazepine
c.
Disulfiram d. Naltrexone
29. What are the contraindications of
disulfiram?
a. Hepatic diseases b. Circulatory diseases
c. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus d. All the above
30. What is the chemical name of disulfiram?
a. Tetra methylthiuram disulphide b. Tetra ethylthiuram disulphide
c.
Tetra ethylazouram disulphide d.
Tetramethylthiuram sulphide
31. What is the mechanism of action of
disulfiram?
a. Block the oxidation of aldehydes. b. Block the reduction of
aldehydes.
c. Enhances the dopamine beta oxidase d. Induces the catecholamine.
32. Which type pf adverse reactions are produced
by using of Disulfiram?
a. Metallic taste in the mouth.
b. Acidosis and cramps.
c. Inhibit the metabolic degradation of
warfarin and phenytoin.
d. All the above
33. Disulfiram inhibits metabolic degradation of
a. Warfarin b. Benzodiazepines
c. Tricyclic anti-depressants d. Theophylline
34. What is the action of acamprosate drug?
P.
An agonist at the GABA Q. An antagonist at the GABA
R.
An agonist at the NMDA S. An antagonist at the NMDA
a.
P, Q b.
P, S c. P, R d. R, S
35. What are the drug-drug interactions of ethyl
alcohol?
a. Opioids and methyldopa can cause CNS
depression.
b. Hydralazine can cause orthostatic
hypotension.
c. Isoniazid can cause hepatic
toxicity.
d. All the above
36. Which of the following anti-platelet is used in the treatment of
cerebral vascular disease with ischemic heart disease?
a. Aspirin b. Phenoxyphylline
c. Dipyridamole d. Ticlopidine
37. What is the alternative compound of heparin in the case of intravenous
administration?
a.
Aruin b.
Russell’s vipor venom
c. Heparinoids d. All the above
38. Sahlis method is used to calculate dose of
a. Iron b. Vitamin-B12
c. Copper d. Vitamin-B6
39. Russell’s vipor venom enhances coagulation by stimulating
a. Thrombokinase b. Prostaglandins
c. Histamines d. Thrombocytes
40. Among the following compounds which one is used in combination with
iron
a. Vitamin-C b. Copper
c. Zinc d. All the above
TARGET GPAT
Name : Sub : Pharmacology
ID : Topic : Anti psychotics
Test : 8 Date
:
1. Which
of the following drugs does not produce extra pyramidal symptoms?
a. Clozapine b. Risperidone
c. Olanzapine d. All the above
2. Schizophrenia is caused due to
a. Increased production of dopamine b. Decreased production of dopamine
c. Both a and b d.
None of the above
3. Which of the following phenothiazine is a potent
drug?
a. Chlorpromazine b. Haloperidol
c. Chlorperazine d.
Trifluperazine
4. Atypical antipsychotic acts at which
dopamine receptor?
a.
D1 b.
D2
c. D3 d.
D4
5. Phenothiazines are used in the treatment
except
a.
Nocturnal enuresis b.
Psychosis
c. Parkinsonism d. Morning sickness
6. Pick the correct option regarding neuroleptic
analgesia
a. Method I.V anaesthesia with combination of
neuroleptics and opiod analgesics
b. Method I V anaesthesia with combination of
neuroleptics and NSAIDS
c. This method is used for carrying operative
procedures such as eye,bronchoscopy
d. Method I.V anaesthesia with combination of
neuroleptics and local anaesthetics
a. P, R b. Q, R c. R, S d. Q, S
7. Which of the following drugs has been
withdrawn from the market because of severe agranulocytosis?
a. Clozapine b. Risperidone
c. Olazapine d. Haloperidol
8. Name the indole derivative, which is used
in the management of schizophrenia
a. Pimozide b. Haloperidol
c. Molindone d. None of the
above
9. Second generation antipsychotics are
effective neuroleptics because
a. Provide wide range of safety b. Helps to improve negative symptoms
c. Decrease
lactation except risperidone d. All the above
10. Which of the following is MAO-B inhibitor
that is used in treatment of Parkinsonism?
a.
Meclobemide b. Phenelzine
c. Selegiline d. Tranylcypromine
11. The tricyclic antidepressant, which is predominantly
nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibitor
a. Imipramine b.
Desipramine
c. Doxepine d. None of the above
12. Rama is 42 year old female with history of
schizophrenia and diabetes mellitus
type-2. She has been treated for many
years with haloperidol with good response.
However she has been recently developed
lip smacking and tongue chewing.
i. What
type of adverse effect is Rama experiencing?
a. Akathisia b. Acute dystonia
c. Pseudoparkinsonism d.
Tardive dyskinesia
ii. Which
of the following medication has been used to treat the adverse effect
described in question (i)?
a. Vitamin-E b. Propranolol
c. Diphenhydramine d. Amantadine
iii. Her
health care persons want to change her therapy to different antipsychotics. Which
one of the following
antipsychotics is the best treatment option?
a. Olanzapine b. Risperidone
c. Quetiapine d. Fluphenazine
13. Which of the following neuroleptics has been
shown to be a partial agonist at the D2-receptor?
a. Aripiprazole b. Clozapine
c. Haloperidol d. Risperidone
14. A 21-year old male has recently begun
pimozide therapy for tourette disorder. He is brought to the emergency
department by his parents. They described that he has “different appering tics”
than before, such as prolonged contraction of the facial muscles. Which being
examined he experiences opisthotonus.
Which of the following drugs would be
beneficial in reducing these symptoms?
a. Beztropine b. Risperidone
c.
Bromocriptine d. Levodopa
15. A 25-year old woman had a long history of
depressive symptoms accompanied by bodyaches
(neuropathic pain).Which of the
following drugs might be useful in this patients?
a. Fluoxetine b. Sertraline
c. Mitrazapine d. Duloxetine
16. 51-year old women with symptoms of major
depression also have narrow-angle glaucoma. Which of the following antidepressants
should be avoided in this patient?
a. Amitriptyline b. Seratraline
c. Bupropion d. Mirtazepine
17. A 55- year old women has following symptoms
like increased appetite hypersomnia and very sensitive to critinism.
i. Name
the type of depression with which women is suffering?
a. Typical depression b. Atypical depression
c. Melancholic depression d. None of the above
ii. Which
of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of above
depression?
a. Citalopram b. Duloxetine
c. Mitrazapine d.
Doxepin
18. Which of the following medication would most
likely exacerbate a preexisting
seizure disorder?
a. Venlafaxine b. Trazodone
c.
Bupropion d. Paronetine
19. i. Which of the following factors may
increase lithium concentration?
a. Caffeine b. Osmotic diuretics
c. increased fluid intake d. NSAIDs
ii. Which of the following is the
appropriate therapeutic range for lithium in the treatment of
mania?
a.
0.4-0.6 meq/l b. 0.6-1.5 meq/l
c.
1.0-2.0 meq/l d. 0.5-1.2 meq/l
20. What is the teratogenic effect of lithium?
a. Goitre b. Thyrotoxycosis
c.
Dwarfism d.
Critinism
21. What is the main adverse
effect of lithium?
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes insipidus
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
22. Which is the antiepileptic
drug used in the treatment of mania?
P. Phenytoin Q.
Carbamazepine
R. Ethosuxiamide S. Valproic acid
a. Q, S b. P,
R c. R, Q d. R, S
23. ‘Cheese reaction’ with tyramine containing
food is observed with
a. Monoamino uptake inhibitors b. MAO inhibitors
c. SSRI’S d. All
the above
24. Which of the following
medications would be considered first-line monotherapy for
an acute episode of
mania?
a. Gabapentin b. Lithium
c. Lamotrazine d. Haloperidol
25. Which of the following mood stabilizers
would be most appropriate in a patient with liver disease?
a. Lithium b. Valproic acid
c. Carbamazepine d.
None of the above
26. What is the treatment for panic anxiety
disorder?
a. Selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors b. Tricyclic antidepressants
c. Benzodiazepines d.
All the above
27. What are the adverse effects of lithium?
a. Patient should be properly hydrated b. Gastric lavage
c. Heamodialysis d. All the above
28. Buspirone is used as anxiolytic drug. Pick
the correct option.
P. It is a azaspirodecanedione derivative which
acts on GABA receptors
Q. It is a azaspirodecanedione derivative which acts on
5-HT receptors and
dopamine receptors
R. It has anticonvulsion, muscle relaxant and sedative
property.
S. It is used to treat generalized anxiety,
comparable to benzodiazepines.
a. Q, S b. Q, R c. P, S d. P, Q
29. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Benzodiazepines directly open
chloride channel
b. Benzodiazepines show analgesic
actions
c. Clinical improvement of anxiety
requires two or four weeks of treatment with
Benzodiazepines
d. All Benzodiazepines have some
sedative effects
30. Flumazenil is an imidazolo benzodiazepines.
What is an important property of it.
P.
Benzodiazepine poisoning
Q.
It potentiates the action of benzodiazepines
R.
It should be administered by I.V infusion, to return to consciousness
with 5-15 min
S.
The drug does not produce withdrawal symptoms
a. P, R b.
Q, S c. R, S d. P, Q
31. Which
of the following benzodiazepines are preffered in gediatrics?
a. Oxazepam, lorazepam b. Diazepam, chlordiazepam
c.
Alprazolam, Diazepam d. Clonazepam,
diazepam
32. Among the following drugs which is a prodrug?
a. Prazepam b.
Estazolam
c.
Triazolam d. Flurazepam
33. Which of the following short acting
benzodiazepines is used as I.V
anaesthetic?
a. Alprazolam b. Triazolam
c.
Lorazepam d. Midazolam
34. Barbiturates are replaced by benzodiazepines
because they produce
a.
Tolerance b.
Severe withdrawal syndrome
c. Produce coma at toxic dose d. All the above
35. Benzodiazepine act by
a. Opening of chloride channels and
produces hyperpolarization
b. Closing of chloride channels and
produces hyperpolarization
c. Opening of chloride channels and
produces depolarization
d. Opening of sodium channel and
produce depolarization
TARGET GPAT
Name : Sub : Pharmacology
ID : Topic :Opioid analgesics, antipsychotics, heart Failure
Test : 9 Date :
1. i. Which
of the following narcotic is indicated for diarrhoea?
a.
Fentanyl b. Loperamide
c. Buprenorphine d. Naloxone
ii. The above drug has no
analgesic activity because
a. It has less affinity for opioid receptors
b. It does not enter the blood brain barrier
c. It acts as morphine antagonist
d. It acts as partial agonist on µ-receptors
2. Which of the following opioid receptors
are responsible for central analgesic action of
opioid?
a.
µ-receptors b. δ-receptors
c.
K-receptors d. Sigma-receptors
3. The unwanted effects elicited by opioids by
acting on µ-receptors are
P. Euphoria Q.
Dysphoria
R.
Respiratory depression S. Convulsion
a.
P, S b. R, S c. P, R d. Q, S
4. A young man is brought into the emergency
room. He is unconscious and he has
pupillary constriction and depressed
respiration. You note needle marks on his legs.
You administer naltrexone and he
awakens. This agent was effective because
a.
The patient was suffering from an over dose by an opioid
b.
Naltrexone antagonizes opiates at the receptor site
c.
Naltrexone is a stimulant of the CNS
d.
Naltrexone binds to the opiod and inactivates it
5. Opioids are used as following agents
except
a.
Anti-tussives b. Analgesics
c.
Anti-inflammatory agents d. Anti-diarrhoeals
6. Which of the following is the active
metabolite of diamorphine?
a.
Codeine b. Morphine
c.
Naltrexone d. Pethidine
7. Straub tail erection in rats is shown by
a.
Morphine b. Naltrexone
c.
Levallorphan d. Loperamide
8. Which of the following is used to treat
opioid over dosage?
a.
Nalorphine b. Naltrexone
c.
Levallorphan d. Loperamide
9. Which of the following narcotic causes
convulsions?
a.
Pentozocine b. Pholcodine
c.
Pethidine d. Fentanyl
10. Tramadolol is a metabolite of
a. Pentazocine b. Trazadone
c. Levallorphan d. Diamorphine
11. Which of the following narcotics has
psychomimetic property?
a. Diamorphine b. Buprenorphine
c. Pentazocine d. Pethidine
12. One of the following opioid peptide released
from pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)
a.
Somatostatin b. Beta-endorphin
c.
Leu-enkephalin d. Dynorphin
13. The tetra-opioid peptide which is having
more affinity for μ-receptor?
a.
Endorphins b. Enkephalins
c.
Dynorphins d. All the above
14. Strong
anticholinergic effect limit the antiarrhythmic use of
a. .Quinidine b. Procainamide
c. Flecainide d. Disopyramide
15. Class IA
a. Slow the
rate of rise for phase 0 of depolarization
b.
Delay the fast-channel conductance of sodium ion
c.
Prolong phase 2 and 3 of repolarization
d.
Inhibits the slow-channel conductance of calcium ion
16. All of the following problems represents/concerns
when patients are started on
amiodarone except
a. Extremely long half life
b. Need for multiple daily doses
c. Development of
hyperthyroidism/hypothyroidism
d. Development of pulmonary fibrosis
17. A 57 year old Rao is being treated for an
atrial arrhythmia. He complains of headache,dizziness
and tinnitus.Which of the following antiarrythmic drugs is most likely
a. Amiodarone b. Procainamide
c. Propranolol d. Quinidine
18. Which of the following type-III
antiarrythmics has been reported as causing the
torsades de point type of ventricular tachycardia
a. Lidocaine b. Amiodarone
c.
Quinidine d. Flecainide
19. A pronounced slowing of phase 0 of the
myocardial action potential results in a prolongation of either arterial or
ventricular depolarization causing QRS complex characterized by which class of
antiarrhythmics?
a. Type-I b. Type-II
c.
Type-III d. Type-V
20. A patient receiving a class-1
anti-arrhythmic agents on chronic basis complains of
fatigue, low-grade fever and joint pain
suggestive of systemic lupus erythymatous.
The patient is most likely to receive.
a. Procainamide b. Lidocaine
c.
Propranolol d. Quinidine
21. Which of the following drugs is a class-IV
anti-arrhythmic that is primarily
indicated for the treatment of
supraventricular tachyarrhythmias?
a. Ibutilide b. Mexiletine
c.
Quinidine d. Verapamil
22. Which of the following drugs is a class-III
anti-arrhythmic that is effective in acute
management of atrial fibrillation or
atrial flutter of recent onset?
a. Propranolol b. Dofetilide
c.
Metoprolol d. Disopyramide
23. Suppression of arrhythmias resulting from a
re-entry focus is mostly likely to occur
if the drug
a.
Has vagomimetric effect on the AV node
b.
Is a β-blocker
c.
Converts a unidirectional block to a bidirectional block
d.
Slows conduction through the atria
24. Which of the following is the exception for
the action of quinidine on myocardium?
a.
Increased refractory period b. Increased force of contraction
c.
Relaxation effect d. Blocks vagal effect of heart
25. Which of the following is the source of
digoxin?
a. Digitalis purpurea b. Digitalis lanata
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
26. What is the drug of choice in the treatment
of Digitalis intoxication?
a.
Administration of Ca2+ b. Administration of K+
c. Administration of quinidine d. Administration of antidote
27. In CHF, which of the following dosage of
dopamine would be used to elicit its
positive inotropic effect.
a.
2μg/kg/min b. 5-10μg/kg/min
c.
10-20μg/kg/min d. 40μg/kg/min
28. Which of the following is a non-glycoside
and non-sympathomimetic positive
ionotropic agents?
a.
Dobutamine b. Amrinone
c.
Milrinone d. Both b and c
29. Which of the following have been shown to be
effective in acute management of
digitalis toxicity?
a.
Cholestyramine resin
b.
Fab fragment antibody
c.
Potassium administration
d.
All the above
30. A 58 year old man is admitted to the
hospital with acute renal failure and pulmonary edema. Which of the following
drugs is used in pulmonary edema?
a.
Digoxin b. Dobutamine
c.
Furosemide d. Spironolactone
31. Which of the following drugs can exacerbate CHF?
a. Ca2+ channel blockers b.
Anti-arrhythmic drugs
c. NSAIDS d. All the
above
32. The use of angiotensin-converting enzyme
inhibitors (ACEI) in heart failure (HF)
centers around what pharmacological
effects?
a. Direct reduction in resin levels
with a resultant decrease in angiotensin-II and aldosterone levels.
b. Indirect reduction of angiotensin-II
and aldosterone levels owing to inhibition of angiotensin
converting enzyme
c. Direct reduction of aldosterone
secretion and angiotensin-I production by inhibiting angiotensin-
converting enzyme
d. All the above
33. Compensatory increase in heart rate and
renin release that occur in heart failure may be alleviated by which of the
following drugs
a. Milrinone b. Digoxin
c. Dobutamine d. Metaprolol
34. What is the action of digitalis on
refractory period?
a.
Prolong b. Complete inhibition
c. Suppresses d. Not varied
35. The risk of digitalis toxicity significantly
reduced by the concomitant administration of
a.
Triamterene b. Hydrochlorthiazide
c.
Captopril d. None of the above
TARGET GPAT
Name : Sub : Pharmacology
ID : Topic :Antihypertensives,NSAIDs,CNS stimulants, Blood
Test : 10 Date :
1. Which of the following is the
angiotensin-II receptor antagonist?
a. Irbesartan b. Carvediol
c. Moexipril d. Nimodipine
2. Which of the following antihypertensive
drug is used in the diabetic nephropathy and
diabetes mellitus?
P. Enalapril Q.
Captopril
R. Amlodipine S.
Diltiazem
a.
P,Q b. R,R c. R,S d. Q,S
3. What is the drug of choice in hypertensive
emergencies?
a. Minoxidil b. Diazoxide
c. Reserpine d. All the above
4. What is the drug of choice to treat
hypertension in pregnancy?
a.
Hydralazine b. Clonidine
c.
Captopril d. Minoxidil
5. Which of the following is the drug of
choice in emergency hypertension?
a.
Reserpine b. Calcium channel blockers
c.
β-blockers d. Sodium nitropruside
6. Dry cough is produced by angiotensin
converting enzyme inhibitors. What is the
main reason?
a.
Increased levels of angiotensin-I b. Decreased levels of angiotensin-II
c.
Decreased levels of bradykinin d.
Increased levels of bradykinin
7. Match the following.
a. Esmolol (Brevibloc) i.β-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.
b. Labetolol (Trandate) ii. β- blocker that also blocks α-adrenergic receptors
c. Bisprolol (Zebeta) iii. β-blocker with an ultra short duration of
action.
d. Nadolol (Corgard) iv. A β-blocker with a long duration of action
and nonselective blocking activity.
e. Pindolol (Visken) v. β-blocker with relative
cardio selective blocking
A. i-e B. i-a C. i-c D.
i-a
ii-b ii-b ii-a
ii-b
iii-a iii-e iii-b
iii-c
iv-d iv-c iv-d
iv-d
v-c v-d v-e v-e
8. Match the following
a.
Clonidine (Catapres) i. Thiocynate intoxication, hypotension and
convulsions
b.
Olmestran (Benicar) ii. Bradycardia, bronchospasm, cardiac
decomposition
c.
Nitroprusside (Nipride) iii. Angioedema, cough, hyperkalemia
d.
Prazosin (Minipress) iv. Rebound hypertension, dry mouth, drowsiness
e.
Propranolol (Inderal.
v. First dose syncope, postural hypotension
palpitations
A.
i-c B. i-a C. i-e D. i-e
ii-e ii-b ii-d ii-c
iii-b
iii-c
iii-c iii-b
iv-a
iv-d iv-b iv-d
v-d v-e v-a v-a
9. Given below are the
hypotensive agents. Match their mode of action
i. Minoxidil a.
Alpha adreno receptor antagonist
ii. Prazosin b. Decrease sympathetic activity through brain
iii. Alpha methyldopa
c.
From alpha methyl norepinephrine
iv. Clonidine d.
Direct action on blood vessel
A.
i-d B. i-c C. i-d D. i-d
ii-a ii-a ii-c ii-a
iii-c iii-b iii-a iii-b
iv-b iv-d iv-b iv-c
10. Antihypertensive
drug that inhibits the renin angiotensin system is
a. Reserpine b. Captopril
c. Methyldopa d. Propranolol
11. An
old patient has been successfully treated with thiazide diuretics, for the last
4 months, his diastolic pressure has steadily increased, and he was prescribed
an additional antihypertensive drug. Now he complains of, unable to achieve an
excretion and that he is no longer able to complete three sets of tennis. The
second antihypertensive medication is most likely to be
a. Captopril b. Losartan
c. Minoxidil d. Nifedipine
12. Which
of the following drug is used in the treatment of severe malignant hypertension?
a. Hydralazine b.
Minoxidil
c. Sodium nitroprusside
d. Fenoldopam
13. Among
the following drugs, which is the longest acting antihypertensive?
a. Labetalol b.
Nitroprusside
c. Nicardipine d. Fenoldopam
14. Sodium
nitroprusside is one of the most potent blood-pressure lowering drug. Its
use
is limited because of
a. Short duration of action b. Very long duration of action
c. Ineffective in oral route d. None of the above
15. Which of the following
NSAIDs has strong oxygen free radical scavenging effect along with COX inhibitory
activity?
a. Aspirin b. Naproxen
c. Sulindac d. Piroxicam
16. Aspirin exerts its
anti-platelet effect by inhibiting.
a.
COX-1 b. COX-2
c. COX-3 d. Leukotriene synthesis
17. Acetaminophen has
advantages over aspirin or other NSAIDS by virtue of
a. Relative lack of anti-platelet effects.
b. Lack of ulcerative effect.
c. Safe alternate for children with viral
infections.
d. All the above.
18. The NSAIDs, act as an
anti-inflammatory through their ability to inhibit
a.
Cox-1 b. Cox-2
c.
Cox-3 d.
Leukotriene synthesis
19. The liver toxicity of paracetamol
is treated by.
P.
Acetyl cysteine Q. Glutathione
R. Methionine S. Levamisole
a. Q,S b. Q,R c. P,R d. P,S
20. Which of the following
drug has effect on COX of brain?
a. Ibuprofen b.
Piroxicam
c. Naproxen d. Paracetamol
21. Which of the following
NSAIDs has no anti-inflammatory action?
a.
Piroxicam b. Paracetamol
c.
Diclofenac d. None of the above
22. The selective COX-II
inhibitors have been associated with which of the following adverse drug
reaction?
a. Severe ischemic
colitis b. Torsade des point
c. Acute liver failure d. Cardiovascular thrombotic effects.
23. What is the side effect of misoprostol is used to prevent ulcer
produced by NSAIDs
a. Fever b. Gastrointestinal cramping and diarrhoea.
c. Headache d. All the above
24. Which of the following
drugs decrease the release of leukotrienes?
a.
Zafirlukast b. Zileuton
c.
Montelukast d. All the above
25. Which of the following
drug is used for the treatment of rheumatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis,
osteoarthritis and have long half-life and permits administration once a day.
a. ROfecoxib b. Diclofenac
c.
Mioxicam d. None of the above
26. Which of the following
drugs is used in eye related pains?
a.
Ibuprofen b. Ketorolac
c.
Diclofenac d. Both b and c
27. Which of the following
drug is used in the treatment of post operative pains and allergic
conjuctivitis?
a.
Morphine b. Fentanyl
c.
Diclofenac d. Ketorolac
28. N-acetylbenzoiminoquinone
is highly reactive and potentially dangerous metabolites of paracetamol that
conjugates with
a. Glutathione b. Sulphate
c. Glucuronide d. Acetyl
29. Probenecid is used in the
treatment of gout, inhibits excretion of penicillin, naproxen, ketoprofen and
indomethacin. The mechanism involved is
a. Increases tubular secretion b. Decreases tubular secretion.
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
30. Match the following.
Drug Pharmacological
action
1. Aspirin P. Rise body temperature
2. Acetaminophen Q. Potent anti-inflammatory activity
3. Phenylbutazone R. Increase of depth of respiration
4. Probenecid S. Non-inflammatory analgesic
a. 1-R b.
1-S c.
1-Q d.
1-S
2-S 2-R 2-P 2-R
3-Q 3-P 3-R 3-P
4-P 4-Q 4-S 4-Q
31. Strychnine poisoning can
be treated by using ‘universal antidote’. What is the
composition?
P. 2 parts of powdered charcoal
Q. 2 parts of magnesium oxide
R. 1 part of each of magnesium chloride and
tannic acid
S. 2 parts of tannic acid and 1 part of powdered
charcoal
a. P,Q b.
P,R c. Q,R d. Q,S
32. Which type of CNS
stimulant acts on the spinal cord?
a. Strychnine b.
Caffeine
c. Nikethamide d. Amphetamine
33. What are the
pharmacological actions of caffeine?
a. Induces the clear flow of thoughts
b. Diuretic effect on kidney
c. Dilatation of coronary and pulmonary blood
vessels
d. All the above
34. Among the following agents which is derived from lysine and used as
a coagulant?
P. Vitamin-K Q.
Tranexamic acid
R. Epsilon amino- caproic acid S.
Ethamsylate
a. R,Q b. R,S c.
P,R d.
P,S
35. Among the following which is used in both invitro and invivo.
a. Heparin b. Coumarin
c. Fluorides d. Oxalates
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